Galatians 4:8

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Howbeit, then when ye knew not God, yee did service unto them which by nature are no Gods. (1611)

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Howbeit then, when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods. (1769)

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*** Both, the KJV 1611 (left side) and the Bishops 1568 (right side) place the comma after the first word (Howbeit/Notwithstanding).The word "Howbeit" is not used as a question, but as an affirmation or a fact, another way of reading this word is: "How it is". The word "then" in the 1611 refers to "in time past, or back then", the Bishops Bible also reads similar to the 1611. But the 1769 reads differently when the comma is placed after the word "then", it reads more like a question. Also, the word "Gods" and "gods" are different. I believe the word "Gods" should remain capitalized because Paul is explaining how the Galatians in time past did service to them (false gods) who by nature are no Gods (Alive, like the Almighty God). In other words, what the Galatians believed to be real Gods (by nature), were actually false gods (them).

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Matthew 4:11

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Then the devill leaveth him, and behold, Angels came and ministred unto him.(1611)

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Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him. (1769)

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*** This verse is fairly simple. In the 1769, there is a pause after the word (and,). I believe that the reason why the 1611 (top left) and the 1568 (top right) did not place the comma after the word "and" was to make the reader understand that something of great importance was to follow, something unexpected, like a surprise announcement. Thus, the words; "and behold" seem more appropriate to the context of this verse. Also, if you search in the 1611 for the words "and behold", there is no comma after (and).  The word Angels, is always capitalized in the 1611, however, it is not capitalized when it is used to identify evil angels, such as in Psalms 78:49 (...by sending evill angels among them) or Revelation 12:7 (And there was warre in heaven, Michael and his Angels fought against the dragon, & the dragon fought and his angels,). Did you notice the Capital "Angels" and lower case "angels" in the same verse?. The 1611 is filled with  such little details. Now, The 1769 lower cases the word angel/s always. And lo, I show you another detail, look at the word devill, the word devill has two word: "evil" and "ill". But sadly, this type of details were allegedly "corrected" around 1755, when Samuel Johnson's Dictionary of the English Language was made the preferred choice, and shortly after, the 1769 KJV was printed.

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Ephesians 1:3-4

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3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spirituall blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

4 According as he hath chosen us in him, before the foundation of the world, that wee should bee holy, and without blame before him in love: (1611)

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3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: (1769)

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*** This verse is yet another controversial verse that divides brothers in Christ. To understand this verse it is necessary to read all of the book of Ephesians, and compare various other bible verses to grasp the full meaning of this verse. On the one side, there is the Calvinistic ideology, which asserts that some men were "predestined" to be saved before the foundation of the world; and everyone else is destined to be dammed. I respectfully disagree with this mentality. Now, lets take a look at the verse. As you have noticed, the 1611 has a comma after the word "him," and "holy,". If we look at verse 3, we are told that we, the church, are blessed with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places (Or, things) in (through/by) Christ. Also, notice the colon (:) after the word "Christ:", this means  verse (4) is a continuation of verse (3). Now, verse (4) goes on to say that those spiritual blessings are according (to Gods will) as he hath (third person present tense; Not: had) chosen us (a born again believer) in him (Jesus), meaning, it is God who dispenses spiritual gifts to each of his saints as we are chosen, or added to the body of Christ; we can learn more about spiritual gifts in 1 Corinthians chapter 12. Also, look at verse (1) and you will see that Paul makes a perfect example of this by saying: "Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God...". It is God who gifted Paul with the ministry of Apostleship. Now, verse (4) makes a remarkable statement because it is also a revelation; the fore coming of Jesus Christ, and the blessings of spiritual gifts (verse 3) and the redemption and forgiveness of sins (verse 7)  were in the will of God, "before the foundation of the world" was. In other words, God had already purposed in himself before the world was even framed that we (the Christian believer), should be holy, and without blame before him (the Lord Jesus) in love.           

                                                           Look at Ephesians Chapter 2 verse 10, this verse

will confirm what Ephesians 1:4 is saying; God

hath before ordained (Or, prepared) that we should

be his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus. What are some the qualities of a workman? love, faithfulness, holiness, blameless, righteous. Look, it also says we are created in Christ Jesus, that took place when you believed, you became a new creation, 2 Corinthians 5:17 says: "Therefore if any man be in Christ, hee is a new creature: old things are past away, behold, al things are become new."

Otherwise, if the comma is removed from Chapter 1 verse 4; after the word (him) as it is in the 1769 KJV it seems to be saying that God hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world. Now, a Calvinist and a non-Calvinist would agree that God saves and adds to his Church; that is correct, because God is who searches the hearts; I cannot add myself to the church nor declare myself to be saved. But the disagreement is in that a Calvinist continues to believe that a man is unable to call upon the name of the Lord to be saved, yea, he says that men are spiritually deprived, and dead. Perhaps, it is for this reason, that the removal of the comma supports their belief. Furthermore, Ephesians 1:5 is a continuation of verse (4) and has a similar word; predestination. Again, it would be an error to assume that this word means "we were chosen before the foundation of the world", on the contrary, it means that those who are added to the church, or as verse 4 says: as he (God) hath chosen us in him (Jesus),  having predestinated (prepared for) us (the church) unto (our placement for) the adoption of children by (through) Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will:. God predestinated/ordained/prepared/arranged a plan of salvation for the saints long before the church ever was. And finally, if we look at verse (7) we can see that we have redemption and forgiveness of sins through Christ. That means that at one point of your life you heard and believed the Gospel by faith (verse 13), contrary to the Calvinistic doctrine. But too be fair, I do acknowledge that God knows the end of everything and everyone, and he foretells births and deaths, but you and I cant; perhaps that's where the mystery is, that although God knows our outcome, yet, he is merciful, fair and just to show us the way. "...it pleased God by the foolishnesse (according to the world) of preaching, to save them that beleeve." (1 Corinthians 1:21). Again, "For whosoever shall call upon the Name of the Lord, shall be saved." Romans 10:13.

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Genesis 3:5

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For God doeth know, that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shalbee opened: and yee shall bee as Gods, knowing good and evill. (1611)

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For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil. (1769)

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***This is yet another example of the importance of word capitalization. In the 1611 the word (G)od is in uppercase, and as we know, this can only means the Almighty God. But then there is another word that is also in capital (G): Gods. Why?. First, we to understand what was the intention/aim of the serpent. The serpent, being a deceiver and a liar, told the woman that they (ye- plural) shall bee as Gods ( as the Almighty (G)od). Therefore the word (Gods) was properly translated, because the serpent was deceiving the woman by telling her that they would be as the Almighty God; a false promise. Also, if you look at the word (as) it is not the same as the word "like". The word "like" is a word that expresses a likeness/similarity of/to something/someone, for example, in Genesis 5:1 it says that "...In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him. That means that man was created with similar characteristics that of God, however, man was not created as God. Here is Another example, In Genesis 25:25 it says the following: And the first came out red, all over like an hairy garment: and they called his name, Esau. Surely, Esau was not an actual hairy garment, but rather, looked like a hairy garment. There are a multitude of other verses that can be used, but this two will suffice. Now, the word "as" has a different flavor, it is used to confirm/assert/proclaim/affirm/identical, this word was first used in Genesis 3:5, followed by Genesis 3:22. In Genesis 3:22 it says: "And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good & evil..." So Adam, was now able to know the difference between good and evil, just as God. Adam did not become a God, but simply acquired the knowledge of knowing good and evil. If we look at Matthew 6:10 it says: Thy kingdome come. Thy will be done, in earth, as it is in heaven. The will of God is done in earth just (as) it is also done in heaven. So now, when the serpent told the woman that they shall be (as Gods) he was deceiving her by stating that they would indeed be as God, that is, as the Most High God. And finally, if we look at Genesis 31:30, both, the 1611 & the 1769 have properly lower cased the word (g)ods because in the context of the scripture it is speaking about the false gods that Laban worshipped. Now to be fair, the 1769 lower cases the word (g)ods just as the 1568 Bishops Bible in Genesis 5:3.

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2 Corinthians 5:2

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For in this we groane earnestly, desiring to be clothed upon with our house, which is from heaven. (1611)

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For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven: (1769)

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***Here is yet another example of the differences between the 1611 and the 1769. This verse has minor influence in doctrine, but it comes to show that even the removal or addition of a coma can change the meaning of the verse. To be fair, the placing of the comma after (groan, (1769) or after (earnestly, (1611) 

are grammatically correct, but in doing so, the context of the verse also changes. You will either conclude that a) Mr. Blayney, the author of the 1769 rightfully corrected the 1611; or b) the 1611 should be left untamed; just as it is, according to how the translators left it. 

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John 8:58

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Jesus said unto them, Verely, verely I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

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Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.

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*** This verse is not particularly different in the 1769, with the exception of the comma after the word (verily). However, I think this would be a great opportunity to explain the meaning of the words (Iam). The argument is that Jesus was claiming to be the (I AM THAT I AM)  of Exodus 3:14. First, we need to understand who is the I AM of the old testament? look at Exodus 3:6-7:

“Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob. And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God.” 7.“And the LORD said, I have surely seen the affliction of my people which are in Egypt, and have heard their cry by reason of their taskmasters; for I know their sorrows;”. As we can see, God is the LORD, or the LORD God. But this is written all over the old testament. The question is, is God the I AM? Well, If we go to Exodus 3:14-15:

“And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.”

15. And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel; The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memoriall unto all generations. As we can see, God is the I AM as well as the LORD. Now the question is, is the LORD God the Father or the Son? for this we need to look at a very unique verse: Psalms 110:1 “A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.” As we already know, the (LORD) is (God) and God is the Father. Now, (Lord) is the Son of God, and the Son of God is Jesus in the flesh. We can cross reference Psalms 110:1 to Mark 16:19: “So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.” The (Lord) is Jesus (the Son of God), and (God) is the (LORD); the Father. So, the Father (LORD) told the Son (Lord) "Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."

Now, back to the question, is Jesus God or the I AM? was Jesus telling the pharisees in John 8:58 that he is the I AM of Exodus 3:14; the LORD God that appeared to Moses? or was he simply telling them that he (the Son of God) existed long before father Abraham ever was. Take note, the word (I am) is in the simple present tense. By using the simple present tense (I am), Jesus was affirming to the pharisees that he still is the Son of God in the flesh, the very one who left his glory in heaven to do the will of his Father and God, remember, before Jesus acceded into heaven he said to Mary Magdalene: “Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.” It would have been inappropriate for Jesus to have said: (I was), because Jesus is of the nature of the Father, and just as the Father (the LORD God), uses the simple present tense (I AM), so did Jesus, But Jesus is not the LORD God, he is the Lord. Paul said in 1 Corinthians 8:6: “But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.” Jesus himself said "...I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.” (John 14:28). Furthermore, Paul said in Ephesians 4:4-6: “There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one Faith, one Baptism, One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.” Clearly, the Father (God) is not the Lord (Son) and the Son is not the Father, but they are of the same nature **see Philippians 2:6, and John 5:26 (these two verses are reserved for another topic of their own).

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Daniel 4:8-9

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8 “But at the last Daniel came in before me, (whose name was Belteshazzar, according to the name of my God, and in whom is the spirit of the holy Gods) and before him I told the dream, saying, 9 O Belteshazzar, master of the Magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy Gods is in thee, and no secret troubleth thee, tell me the visions of my dreame that I have seene, and the interpretation thereof.” (1611)

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8 “But at the last Daniel came in before me, whose name was Belteshazzar, according to the name of my god, and in whom is the spirit of the holy gods: and before him I told the dream, saying, 9 O Belteshazzar, master of the magicians, because I know that the spirit of the holy gods is in thee, and no secret troubleth thee, tell me the visions of my dream that I have seen, and the interpretation thereof.” (1769)

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******Here is another example of the importance of word capitalization. To understand the context of this verse, we first need to understand the context of this chapter (4). King Nebuchadnezzar is giving his testimony about a dream he had. Pay attention to how King Nebuchadnezzar speaks, he uses the word (I) in many verses such as in 2, 4, 5 and 9; and he also uses the words (me) & (my) in verse 8. In verse 8 king Nebuchadnezzar is saying that Daniel (whose name was Belteshazzar (see Daniel 1:7: “Unto whom the prince of the eunuchs gave names: for he gave unto Daniel the name of Belteshazzar;…) according to the name of my God). Daniel was given a name by the eunuchs, this name (Belteshazzar) was according to the (God) of king Nebuchadnezzar. The name Belteshazzar, has the name Bel in the first three letters; a pagan god. However, the word (God) is capitalized in the 1611 because its quoting the words of king Nebuchadnezzar (however, but be mindful that this is the testimony of king Nebuchadnezzar after he came to know the true and only Holy God) In other words, before king Nebuchadnezzar came to know The Almighty God, Bel was his God.  As we continue with the verse, the following is said: (and in whom is the spirit of the holy Gods). Both the 1611 and the 1769 lower case the word (spirit), and rightfully so, because king Nebuchadnezzar at this time has no knowledge of the holy Spirit. But the word (Gods) is in upper case in the 1611, again, this is because King Nebuchadnezzar believed in (holy Gods); he was a pagan worshiper, and he saw these gods as (holy Gods). it is uncertain how many gods he used to believe in, but perhaps is safe to say that among them were the gods of divination *see verse 7. In summary, The use of the word (God), (Gods), (god), or (gods) depends in the context of the chapter, one cannot simply lower case the word (God) simply to distinguish the Almighty God from a pagan god. As we have learned, the context will permit for variations of the word (God) to be used based on the context of scripture (e.g. first person point of view, second person point of view, etc.). In verse 8, king Nebuchadnezzar was giving a testimony of his formal self in which he spoke about his Gods. And as you can see, the 1769 lower cases the words: god and gods. Surely, one may say that this was done to avoid confusion, but in doing so, an alternate interpretation was presented. The words: spirit, and Spirit are also used differently in the 1611 and 1769 throughout scripture, this alone can create confusion and misinterpretation of scripture if the context is not understood.

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Ephesians 5:5

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For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor uncleane person, nor covetous man who is an idolater, hath any inheritance in the kingdome of Christ, and of God.

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For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean person, nor covetous man, who is an idolater, hath any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God.

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***Here is yet another example of the removal of the comma after the word (Christ). The 1611 places a comma after the word Christ, (the Son); see (Matthew 16:16“And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.”) from the word God (the Father). And as you can see, the 1568 Bishops Bible is in accord with the 1611. However, the 1769 removes the comma, in doing so, you are more likely to believe the doctrine of Christ being God or God is Christ. If we look at 2 Peter 1:11, it says: "For so an entrance shall be ministred unto you abundantly, into the everlasting kingdome of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ"-1611 (no comma after (Lord); this is referring to the Son. Now, the words "kingdom of God" are found more than 60 times in the new Testament, giving reference to the Father. Also, the comma after the word (man) in the 1769 should be removed since the first clause (nor covetous man) is connected to the second clause (who is idolater).

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