
Is JESUS Lord-or-God?
My Beloved Brother/Sister;
(2 Corinthians 2:17)
1. Flat or Ball Earth?
2. Where are the Dead?
3. Was Phebe a Deacon?
4 Is Jesus God or Lord?
INTRO:
Under Construction.

Authorized Version 1611 & King James Bible 1769
Analytical Concordance to the Bible: Robert Young, 1880
The New Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
Greek Text: Beza 1598 & Stephanus 1550 Textus Receptus
"We will begin by analyzing 2 Peter 1:1-2.
Focus on the punctuation. "
2 Peter 1:1-2
1"Simon Peter, a servant and an Apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious Faith with us, through the righteousnes of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ. 2 Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord," (1611)
2 Peter 1:1-2
1"Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: 2 Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord," (1769)
First,
let's compare the Greek text of the Textus Receptus.
Textus Receptus (Scrivener 1894) 2 Peter 1:1
Σιμων-(Simon) Πετρος-(Peter) δουλος-(a-servant) και-(and) αποστολος-
(an-apostle) ιησου-(of-Jesus) χριστου-(Christ) τοις-(to-the ones) ισοτιμον- (like-precious) ημιν-(to-us) λαχουσιν-(chancing-on) πιστιν-(faith) εν- (through) δικαιοσυνη-(the-righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(saviour) ημων-(our) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(christ)
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων (Simeon) Πετρος-(Peter) δουλος-(a-servant) και-(and) αποστολος-(an- apostle) ιησου-(of-Jesus) χριστου-(Christ) τοις-(to-the ones) ισοτιμον- (like-precious) ημιν-(to-us) λαχουσιν-(chancing-on) πιστιν-(faith) εν- (through) δικαιοσυνη-(the-righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(saviour) ημων-(our) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(christ)
Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων (Simeon) Πετρος-(Peter) δουλος-(a-servant) και-(and) αποστολος-(an-apostle) ιησου-(of-Jesus) χριστου-(christ) τοις-(to-the ones) ισοτιμον- (like-precious) ημιν-(to-us) λαχουσιν-(chancing-on) πιστιν-(faith) εν- (through) δικαιοσυνη-(the-righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(saviour) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(christ)
***As you can see, there are two major differences between the three texts, I have highlighted them in (purple) & (blue). The first difference: 1) (Scrivener 1894) uses the Greek word Σιμων-(Simon), while (Stephanus 1550) & (Beza 1598) use the Greek word Συμεων (Simeon). The second difference 2) (Scrivener 1894) & (Beza 1598) include the Greek word ημων-(of-us) after the Greek word σωτηρος-(of-saviour) while (Stephanus 1550) does not. To be fair, only the text of (Stephanus 1550) & (Beza 1598) are relevant, since these were among the texts used to influence the 1611 (AV).
2 Peter 1:1 & Titus 2:13 are two verse that are commonly used to affirm Jesus Christ as God. If we look back at 2 Peter 1:1-2, we will see that there is a comma after the word (God) ("...through the righteousnes of God(,) and our Saviour Jesus Christ...-1611"). Contrary to this reading is that of the 1769 (KJV) which reads: ("...through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:..."). Without the comma (,) one is likely to believe that Jesus is also God. Titus 2:13 is a perfect example to compare with 2 Peter 1:1
("...Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God(,) and our Saviour Jesus Christ,...-1611"), this however, is written differently in the (1769) ("...Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;..."). Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 are the only two verses in the bible that have the words: ("God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ"). And in both cases, the 1611 (AV) places a comma after the word (God,). And likewise, the 1769 (KJV) removes the comma after the word (God). The proper use of the comma (,) is just as relevant and fundamental as any other punctuation mark.
Lets continue by examining other verses that have the words:
("God our Saviour")
1 Timothie 1:1-2 (1611)
1"Paul an Apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope,2 Unto Timothie, my own sonne in the Faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father, and Jesus Christ our Lord."
vs
1 Timothy 1:1-2 (1769)
1"Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment
of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;2 Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from
God our Father and Jesus Christ our Lord."
***In verses (1) and (2) we can see that the word (our) is a; Possessive Pronoun, 1st Person, Genitive, Plural). There is a clear separation between God our Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver) (, and) Jesus Christ our hope. In verse (1) the (Lord Jesus Christ) is neither (God) or (Saviour). Verse (2) follows the same pattern as verse (1), God our Father (, and) Jesus Christ our Lord. As you can see, even the 1769 properly places the comma after the word (Saviour,), but lacks the comma after the word (Father). Look, Paul gives a similar introduction in 2 Timothie 1:1-2 (1"Paul, an Apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, according to the promise of life, which is in Christ Jesus, 2 To Timothie, my dearely beloved sonne: grace, mercie, and peace from God the Father, and Christ Jesus our Lord.")
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 1 Timothy 1:1-2
1 παυλος αποστολος ιησου χριστου κατ επιταγην θεου-(of-God) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) και (and) κυριου (Lord) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ) της (the) ελπιδος (hope) ημων (our) 2 τιμοθεω γνησιω τεκνω εν πιστει χαρις ελεος ειρηνη απο (from) θεου (God) πατρος (Father) ημων (our) και (and) χριστου (Christ) ιησου (Jesus) του (the) κυριου (Lord) ημων (our)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (Saviour)
correct
"...of God our Saviour..."
incorrect
"...of our God Saviour..."
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun ελπιδος (hope)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun πατρος (Father)
correct
"...from God our Father..."
incorrect
"...from our God Father..."
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun κυριου (Lord)
1 Timothie 2:3-5 (1611)
3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour, 4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.5 For there is one God, and one Mediatour between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
vs
1 Timothy 2:3-5 (1769)
3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour; 4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;
*** This is another verse in which (God) is called our (Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver). Similarly, in Luke 1:46-47 Mary (the mother of Jesus) calls (God), her (saviour), and this she said before Jesus was born: (46"And Marie said, My soul doth magnify the Lord.47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver)."). The notion that God is also saviour, should not be a foreign concept. Now, if you look at verse (5) Paul makes it clear that there is (one-εἷς (heis)-one, a single) God, and (one-εἷς (heis)- one, a single) mediator-μεσίτης (mesitēs)-one who intervenes between two, a medium of communication, arbitrator) between God and men-ἄνθρωπος (anthrōpos)-a human being, whether male or female), the man-ἄνθρωπος (anthrōpos)-a human being) Christ Jesus. Did you notice, Paul is calling the Lord Jesus Christ, (the man), and not, "the/our God". Do you remember what our beloved brother Stephen said in Acts 7:55-56 right before he was stoned? ("55 But hee being full of the Holy Ghost, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing-ἵστημι (histēmi) on the right hand-δεξιός (dexios) of God, 56 And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the Sonne of man standing-ἵστημι (histēmi) on the right hand-δεξιός (dexios) of God.") Steven gave testimony of what he saw in heaven; two individuals, one of which was (God) and the other, the Lord Jesus (the sonne of man). Notice, in verse (55) it says: (Jesus standing), and in verse (56) it says (the Sonne of man standing), meaning, both, (Jesus) and (sonne of man) are one and the same. Steven did not see two Gods. And neither did he see three in one, or one as three, on the contrary, he said ("...and Jesus standing-ἵστημι (histēmi)-has various uses: here; to stand, i.e to stand by or near, place, to set) on the right hand-δεξιός (dexios)- right hand, side) of God..."). Here is another example of the Greek word ἵστημι (histēmi) in Luke 5:2 ("And sawe two ships standing-ἵστημι (histēmi) by the lake: but the fishermen were gone out of them, and were washing their nets."). And here is another example of the Greek word δεξιός (dexios) in Matthew 6:3 ("But when thou doest almes, let not thy left hand know, what thy right-δεξιός (dexios)- right hand, side) doeth:"). lo, I show you one more; Matthew 25:31 ("When the Sonne of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy Angels with him, then shall hee sit upon the throne of his glory:"); Look at Matthew 19:28 for a cross reference ("And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Sonne of man shal sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shal sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel."), by implication, Jesus does not call himself "God". It would be a mistake to assume that the words (the son of man) are only used to simply identify (or to recognize) Jesus as the man he was, while on the earth. Beloved, when our Lord Jesus Christ died, and was resurrected, his body was no longer in the tomb, that is because Jesus (who is the son of God, and also, the son of man) was raised from the dead, hence the words in Acts 13:30&33 (30"But God raised him from the dead:...33God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again, as it is also written in the second psalm: Thou art my Sonne, this day-σήμερον (sēmeron)-this (very) day) have I begotten-γεννάω (gennaō)-to be born, to be begotten, bring forth) thee."). Brothers, to say that the Son of God (who became flesh), upon his resurrection was no longer the son of man, would be a mistake. When Steven saw the heaven open, he saw Jesus Christ (the son of man), who is also his Lord and saviour, who is also, the (Son of God). Who do you think will be the judge in the day of judgement? look at John 5:22&27 (22"For the Father judgeth-κρίνω (krinō)-to pronounce judgment, to subject to censure, to judge) no man: but hath committed all-πᾶς (pas)-various uses, here: the judgment he hath given wholly, all, the whole) judgment-κρίσις (krisis)-decision (subjectively or objectively, for or against); by extension, a tribunal; by implication, justice (especially, divine law):—accusation, condemnation, damnation, judgment) unto the Sonne:") 27 ("And hath given him authority-ἐξουσία (exousia)-power of choice, liberty of doing as one pleases, right) to execute judgment-κρίσις (krisis)-decision (subjectively or objectively, for or against); by extension, a tribunal; by implication, justice (especially, divine law):—accusation, condemnation, damnation, judgment) also, because he is-ἐστίν (estin) the Sonne of man.") Did you notice that in verse (22) Jesus is called (Son) of the Father, but in verse (27) he is called the (son of man), and mind you, John the Apostle is quoting the words of Jesus. I show you one more, Paul said in Acts 17:31 ("Because hee-(God) hath appointed-ἵστημι (histēmi)-set, establish, put, place) a day in the which he will judge-κρίνω (krinō)-to pronounce judgment, to subject to censure, to judge) the world-οἰκουμένη (oikoumenē)-habitable earth or land) in righteousnesse, by-ἐν (en) i.e; by (means of) that man-ἀνήρ (anēr)-a man) whom hee hath ordained-ὁρίζω (horizō)-to mark out or off, to determine, appoint), whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised-ἀνίστημι (anistēmi)- to cause to rise up, raise up) him-(Jesus) from the dead."). God will judge the world (by) Jesus Christ (that man), who is our (Lord and Saviour); and who is also the (Sonne of man) as well as the (Sonne of God). The Son of God will be the judge of the world because he became flesh, after the likeness of man, therefore, it is only proper to have a judge that has known our nature. For he, himself was tempted as we: Hebrews 4:15 ("For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points- πᾶς (pas)-every, collectively, in all respects) tempted-πειράω (peiraō)- to try, prove, to test, to make trial of one, put him to proof) like-κατά (kata)-i.e; according to, agreeably to) as we are, yet without sin."). And finally, 1 Timothie 2:5-6 confirms ("For there is one-εἷς (heis)-one, a single, in oppose to many) God, and one-εἷς (heis)-one, a single, in oppose to many) Mediatour-μεσίτης (mesites)-middle man, arbitrator, i.e (by implication) a reconciler (intercessor):—mediator.) betweene God and men, the man-ἄνθρωπος (anthropos)-a man, a human being) Christ Jesus, Who gave himselfe-ἑαυτὸν (heauton)-of himself, self) a ransome for all, to be testified in due time."). did you notice, Paul said: (the man) instead of (our God).
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 1 Timothie 2:3
τουτο γαρ καλον και αποδεκτον ενωπιον-(in the sight) του (of) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) θεου (God)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (saviour)
correct
"...of God our Saviour..."
incorrect
"...of our God Saviour..."
Titus 3:4-6 (1611)
4"But after that the kindnesse and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared-ἐπιφαίνω (epiphainō)-to shine upon, to bring to light),5 Not by workes of righteousnesse which wee have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost,6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour:"
vs
Titus 3:4-6 (1769)
4"But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;"
***In this verses we can appreciate how God is (our) Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver), and also Jesus Christ is (our) Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver). However, there is no hint that Jesus is/a God, or, that God is Jesus. Look at verse (6), it says: Which he-(God) shed-ἐκχέω (ekcheō)-to pour out, shed forth) on us abundantly through-διά (dia)-i.e: of means, by, by means of) Jesus Christ our Saviour.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) Titus 3:4 & 6
4 οτε δε η χρηστοτης και η φιλανθρωπια επεφανη του-(of) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) θεου (God) ...6 ου εξεχεεν εφ ημας πλουσιως δια-(through) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ) του (the) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (Saviour)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (Saviour)
Jude 1:24-25 (1611)
24"Now unto him that is able to keepe you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy,25 To the onely-μόνος (monos)-alone (without a companion) wise God our Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver), be glory and majestie, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen."
vs
Jude 1:24-25 (1769)
24"Now unto him that is able to keep you from falling, and to present you faultless before the presence of his glory with exceeding joy,25 To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen."
***Notice, there is (onely-μόνος (monos) one (wise God), not two. Here is another example of the Greek word μόνος (monos) in Romans 16:27 ("To God, onely-μόνος (monos)-alone (without a companion) wise, bee glorie through-διά (dia)-a primary preposition denoting the channel of an act) Jesus Christ, for ever. Amen."). Did you notice how Jude 1:25 and Romans 16:27 are very similar. Furthermore, glorie is to be given to the (onely) (God), (through) (Jesus Christ).
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) Jude 1:25
25 μονω (to-only) σοφω (wise) θεω (God) σωτηρι (Saviour) ημων (our) δοξα και μεγαλωσυνη κρατος και εξουσια και νυν και εις παντας τους αιωνας αμην
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρι (Saviour)
correct
"...To the only wise God our Saviour..."
incorrect
"...To the only wise our God Saviour..."
"As we can see, several examples were given in which the words
(God our saviour) apply to the Father. Not one verse
gave reference to Jesus as been both, God and Saviour. On the contrary,
each verse showed that there's (onley) one (God).
Now lets find verses that show Jesus Christ as the Saviour."
10"And the Angel said unto them, Feare not: for behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people.11 For unto you is borne this day, in the city of David, a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord."
***In the context of this verses, The Angel of the Lord came to some shepheards to deliver the good news of the birth of the Jesus. As you can see, Jesus is called a (Saviour)- σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, deliverer, preserver), which is Christ-Χριστός (christos)-"anointed") the Lord-κύριος (kyrios)-master, lord). Even, at his birth, he was pronounced as the anointed Saviour.
Now, someone might think to say that in Matthew 1:23 it says that Jesus is/a God or that God is Jesus because it says (Behold, a Virgin shall be with childe, and shall bring forth a sonne, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted, is, God with us.) And I agree with Matthew 1:23 because Hebrews 1:1-3 confirms it: ("God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds-αἰών (aiōn)-age, indefinite time, dispensation); 3 Who-(Jesus) being the brightnesse of his-(Father's) glory, and the expresse image-χαρακτήρ (charaktēr)-the exact expression (the image) of any person or thing, marked likeness, precise reproduction in every respect, i.e facsimile, i.e. an exact copy) of his-(Father's) person-ὑπόστασις (hypostasis)-substratum, what lies under), and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himselfe purged our sinnes, sate down on the right hand of the Majestie on high,). In other words, when the world saw the son of God (Jesus), they were essentially seeing the (express Image) of (God). Lo, Jesus told Philip in John 14:8-9 (8"Philip sayth unto him, Lord, shew-δεικνύω (deiknyō)-to show, expose to the eyes) us the Father, and it sufficeth us.9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I bin so long time with you, and yet hast thou not knowen me, Philip? he that hath seene-ὁράω (horaō)- to see with the eyes, to see with the mind, to perceive, know) me, hath seene-ὁράω (horaō)- to see with the eyes, to see with the mind, to perceive, know) the father, and how sayest thou then, Shew us the father?"). For this reason 1 Timothy 3:16 says that God was (manifest-φανερόω (phaneroō)-to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown, to manifest, whether by words, or deeds, or in any other way) in the flesh), and not, that God became flesh. Here is another example of the Greek word φανερόω (phaneroō) in John 17:6 ("I have manifested-φανερόω (phaneroō) thy Name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were; and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.").
Titus 1:2-4 1611
2"In hope of eternall life, which God that cannot lie, promised before the world began:3 But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto mee according to the commandment of God our Saviour:4 To Titus, mine owne Sonne after the common faith, Grace, mercie, and peace from God the Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour."
vs
Titus 1:2-4 1769
2"In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began;3 But hath in due times manifested his word through preaching, which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour;4 To Titus, mine own son after the common faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ our Saviour."
***This is another case in which both, (God), and (Jesus Christ) are called (Saviour-σωτήρ (sōtēr)-saviour, preserver). If you notice, the 1769 (KJV) is lacking the comma (,) after the words (from God the Father). As you can see, Jesus Christ is called (Lord) and not; God. And God is called (the Father) and not; the Lord.
This verse again corrects Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 from the false notion that Jesus is God or that God is Jesus.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) Titus 1:3-4
3 εφανερωσεν δε καιροις ιδιοις τον λογον αυτου εν κηρυγματι ο επιστευθην εγω
κατ (according-to) επιταγην (the-commandment) του (of) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) θεου (God) 4τιτω γνησιω τεκνω κατα κοινην πιστιν χαρις ελεος ειρηνη (peace) απο (from) θεου (God) πατρος (Father) και (and) κυριου (Lord) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ) του (the) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (Saviour)
"...God our Saviour..."
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun σωτηρος (Saviour)
"...Jesus Christ our Saviour."
2 Peter 3:18 1611
But growe in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ: to him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.
vs
2 Peter 3:18 1769
But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.
*** As you can see, neither the 1611 or the 1769 place a comma (,) after the word (Lord), thus properly identifying (Jesus Christ) as (Lord and Saviour), and not: as "God and Saviour". This is the grammatical tense for this verse: (our- Possessive Pronoun, 1st Person, Genitive, Plural) (Lord-noun, Genitive, Singular, Masculine (and-conjunction (Saviour Jesus Christ-noun, Genitive, Singular, Masculine (x3). Notice too, that the author is Peter, if Peter wanted to identify Jesus Christ as God and Saviour (as Trinatarians like to point out in 2 Peter 1:1), then this would have been a perfect opportunity for Peter to re-affirm Jesus Christ as God.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 2 Peter 3:18
αυξανετε δε εν χαριτι και γνωσει (knowledge) του (of) κυριου (Lord) ημων (our) και (and) σωτηρος (saviour) ιησου (jesus) χριστου (Christ) αυτω η δοξα και νυν και εις ημεραν αιωνος αμην
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun κυριου (Lord)
Jude 1:4 (1611)
"For there are certaine men crept in unawares, who were before of olde ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the onely Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ."
vs
Jude 1:4 (1769)
*** This is also a good verse. Notice, there is a distinction between the (Lord God) and (Lord Jesus). First, notice it says: denying the onely-μόνος (monos)-alone (without a companion) Lord-δεσπότης (despotēs)- despot, master, an absolute ruler) God(,) and-καί (kai)- and, also) our-ἡμῶν (hēmōn)-our, we, us) Lord-κύριος (kyrios)-lord, sir, master) Jesus Christ. Here is another example of the Greek word δεσπότης (despotēs) in Acts 4:24 ("And when they heard that, they lifted up their voice to God with one accord, and said, Lord-δεσπότης (despotēs)- despot, master, an absolute ruler), thou art God, which hast made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and all that in them is:"). As you can appreciate, both the 1611 & 1769 place a comma (,) after the word (God,); thus identifying two individuals:
(denying the onely Lord God)(,) and (our Lord Jesus Christ). Do not underestimate the importance of the comma.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) Jude 1:4
παρεισεδυσαν γαρ τινες ανθρωποι οι παλαι προγεγραμμενοι εις τουτο το κριμα ασεβεις την-(the) του (of-the) θεου (God) ημων (our) χαριν (grace) μετατιθεντες (turning) εις (into) ασελγειαν (lasciviousness) και (and) τον (the) μονον (only) δεσποτην (Lord) θεον (God) και (and) κυριον (Lord) ημων (our) ιησουν (Jesus) χριστον (Christ) αρνουμενοι (denying)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun θεου (God)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun κυριον (Lord)
θεον (God) και (and) κυριον (Lord) ημων (our) ιησουν (Jesus) χριστον (Christ)
correct
"...God, and our Lord Jesus Christ..."
incorrect
"...our God and Lord Jesus Christ..."
Part 2.
"Now lets revisit 2 Peter 1:1-2."
2 Peter 1:1-2 (1611)
1"Simon Peter, a servant and an Apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious Faith with us, through the righteousnes of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ. 2 Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,"
2 Peter 1:1-2 (1769)
1"Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: 2 Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,"
***Let's begin by comparing other Bible translations for: 2 Peter 1:1.
the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ (NASB)
the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ (RSV)
the justice of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ. (Douay-Rheims)
the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ. (NAB)
the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ. (NIV)
the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ: (NKJV)
Below are two well known Greek texts that support the above verses:
1. ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:1 Greek NT: Nestle 1904 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεὼν Πέτρος δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν-(the) δικαιοσύνῃ-(righteousness) τοῦ-(of) Θεοῦ-(God) ημων-(our) καὶ-(and) Σωτῆρος-(Saviour) Ἰησοῦ-(Jesus) Χριστοῦ-(Christ)·
=the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ
2. ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:1 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort 1881 2 Peter 1:1
ΣΙΜΩΝ ΠΕΤΡΟΣ δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν-(the) δικαιοσύνῃ-(righteousness) τοῦ-(of) θεοῦ-(God) ἡμῶν-(our) καὶ-(and) σωτῆρος-(Saviour) Ἰησοῦ-(Jesus) Χριστοῦ-(christ)·
=the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ
As you can see, the above Alexandrian Greek Texts give support to the Trinitarian belief. The above six (6) verses identify Jesus Christ as both, God and Savior.
Now, let's compare 2 Peter 1:1 with the 1611 AV and 1769 KJV.
...the righteousnes of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ. (1611 AV)
...the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: (1769 KJV)
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων Πετρος δουλος και αποστολος ιησου χριστου τοις ισοτιμον ημιν λαχουσιν
πιστιν εν- (the) δικαιοσυνη-(righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(saviour) ημων-(our) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(Christ)
Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων Πετρος δουλος και αποστολος ιησου χριστου τοις ισοτιμον ημιν λαχουσιν
πιστιν εν- (the) δικαιοσυνη-(righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(saviour) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(Christ)
Grammatically, the Alexandrian texts (Nestle 1904 & Westcott and Hort 1881) do identify Jesus Christ as God and Savior. And interestingly enough, the (Textus Receptus of (Stephanus 1550) parallels well with the Alexandrian texts, or vice versa; the (Nestle 1904 & Westcott and Hort 1881) agree with the (Textus Receptus of (Stephanus 1550).
Below is a list of the old English Bibles for 2 Peter 1:1.
Bishops Bible 1568
the ryghteousnes of our god and sauiour Iesus Christe:
Geneva Bible 1560
the righteousnesse of our God and Sauiour Iesus Christ:
The Great Bible 1539
the ryghtewesnes of oure God and sauioure Iesus Christ.
Matthew's Bible. 1537
the rightuousnes that commeth of oure God and sauiour Iesu Christ.
Coverdale Bible 1535
the righteousnes that commeth of oure God, and Sauioure Iesus Christ.
Tyndale Bible 1534
the rightewesnes that commeth of oure God and savioure Iesus Christ.
Wycliffe Bible 1382
the riytwisnesse of oure God and sauyour Jhesu Crist,
It is probable or a fact that John Wycliffe used the Latin Vulgate, which was a translation of a translation; which was used by the Catholic church. Did the Wycliffe Bible 1382 influence the Greek text of Erasmus and Stephanus? to answer this question, would require diligent research.
On the other hand, the (Textus Receptus of (Beza 1598) uses an additional Greek word (ημων-(our) after the word σωτηρος-(saviour), which when read in English, reads like this: "...of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ."; which is how the 1611 and 1769 read. It seems that in 2 Peter 1:1, the 1611 AV and the 1769 KJV did not follow after the older English Bibles, nor after the modern English Bibles which read like this: "..of our God and Savior Jesus Christ." It is also unlikely that the translators of the 1611 used the (Textus Receptus of Stephanus 1550) for 2 Peter 1:1 because it does not reflect the format of the 1611. Not only so, but Stephanu's 1550 Textus Receptus for 2 Peter 1:1 aligns with the (Nestle 1904 & Westcott and Hort 1881), or vice versa. see below:
Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων Πετρος δουλος και αποστολος ιησου χριστου τοις ισοτιμον ημιν λαχουσιν
πιστιν εν- (the) δικαιοσυνη-(righteousness) του-(of) θεου-(God) ημων-(our) και-(and) σωτηρος-(Saviour) ιησου-(Jesus) χριστου-(Christ)
=the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ
1. ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:1 Greek NT: Nestle 1904 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεὼν Πέτρος δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν-(the) δικαιοσύνῃ-(righteousness) τοῦ-(of) Θεοῦ-(God) ημων-(our) καὶ-(and) Σωτῆρος-(Saviour) Ἰησοῦ-(Jesus) Χριστοῦ-(Christ)·
=the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ
2. ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:1 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort 1881 2 Peter 1:1
ΣΙΜΩΝ ΠΕΤΡΟΣ δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσιν πίστιν ἐν-(the) δικαιοσύνῃ-(righteousness) τοῦ-(of) θεοῦ-(God) ἡμῶν-(our) καὶ-(and) σωτῆρος-(Saviour) Ἰησοῦ-(Jesus) Χριστοῦ-(Christ)·
=the righteousness of our God and savior Jesus Christ
"Now let's compare verse (2) of:"
2 Peter 1:2:
2 "Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,"
...through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord, (1611 AV)
...through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord, (1769 KJV)
As you can see, verse (2) clears all doubts; Peter identifies two individuals:
1) God, 2) Jesus. It just doesn't make sense that in verse (1) Jesus is God and Saviour, but in verse (2) he is just, Lord.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 2 Peter 1:2
Χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη ἐν ἐπιγνώσει τοῦ (of) Θεοῦ (God) καὶ (and) Ἰησοῦ (Jesus) τοῦ (of) Κυρίου (Lord) ἡμῶν (our)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun κυρίου (Lord)
=of God, and of Jesus our Lord,
Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550) 2 Peter 1:2
χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη ἐν ἐπιγνώσει τοῦ (of) θεοῦ (God) καὶ (and)
Ἰησοῦ (Jesus) τοῦ (of) κυρίου (Lord) ἡμῶν (our)
***The possessive pronoun ημων (our) is for the noun κυρίου (Lord)
=of God, and of Jesus our Lord,
***As you can see, both the 1611 & 1769 correctly reflect the Greek text. Even the comma (,) is placed correctly.
"Let's compare the Alexandrian Greek texts"
ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:2 Greek NT: Nestle 1904
χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη ἐν ἐπιγνώσει τοῦ (of) Θεοῦ (God) καὶ (and) Ἰησοῦ (Jesus) τοῦ (of) Κυρίου (Lord) ἡμῶν (our)
ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:2 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort 1881
χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη ἐν ἐπιγνώσει τοῦ (of) θεοῦ (God) καὶ (and)
Ἰησοῦ (Jesus) τοῦ (of) κυρίου (Lord) ἡμῶν (our)
***As you can see, these two Greek texts agree with Beza & Stephanus. Below are some of the modern Bibles that agree with the above texts.
...of God and of Jesus our Lord NIV
...of God and of Jesus our Lord ESV
...of God and of Jesus our Lord NASB
...of God and of Jesus our Lord NKJV
As you can see, these Bibles properly translated the Greek text. However, they lack the comma (,) after the word (God).
Part 3.
"In this segment we will learn how the Greek word (ημων)-our translates into English."
1 Timothy 1:1-2
1"Paul an Apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope,2 Unto Timothie, my own sonne in the Faith: Grace, mercy, and peace, from God our Father, and Jesus Christ our Lord."
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598)
1 παυλος αποστολος ιησου χριστου κατ επιταγην θεου-(God) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) και (and) κυριου (Lord) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ) της (the) ελπιδος (hope) ημων (our) 2 τιμοθεω γνησιω τεκνω εν πιστει χαρις ελεος ειρηνη απο θεου (God) πατρος (father) ημων (our) και (and) χριστου (Christ) ιησου (Jesus) του (the) κυριου (Lord) ημων (our)
***First, the Greek word ημων-(our) is a Possessive Pronoun. As you can see, the Greek text puts the possessive pronoun (ημων-(our) after the noun (σωτηρος (Saviour). But in English grammar:
Possessive pronouns show that something belongs to someone. The possessive pronouns are my, our, your, his, her, its, and their. There’s also an “independent” form of each of these pronouns: mine, ours, yours, his, hers, its, and theirs. Possessive pronouns are never spelled with apostrophes.
Possessive pronouns simplify constructions that show possession of a noun.
Here, lets begin with the first example:
"...κατ επιταγην θεου σωτηρος (Saviour)= Noun, Genitive, Singular, Masculine) ημων (our)= Possessive Pronoun, 1st Person, Genitive, Plural) και κυριου..."
As you can see, the Greek text places the Noun-(Saviour) before the Possesive Pronoun-(our). But in English the possesive pronoun-(our) is before the Noun-(Saviour), Thus reading like this: "... our Saviour..." This format is also true for the following:
ελπιδος (hope) ημων (our) = our hope
πατρος (father) ημων (our) = our Father
κυριου (Lord) ημων (our) = our Lord
Now, notice that when translating from the Greek to the English, the possesive pronoun (PP) is applied to the noun (N) that is before it.
For example:
(correct)
θεου (God-N) πατρος (Father-N) ημων (our- PP) = God our Father
(incorrect)
θεου (God-N) πατρος (Father-N) ημων (our-PP) = our God Father
*** to see more examples, scroll up and compare the Greek text with the English verse
"Now, let's examine 2 Titus 3:12"
Titus 2:13 (1611)
"Looking-προσδεχόμενοι (prosdechomenoi)-to received toward, wait, to expect) for that blessed hope, and the glorious-δόξης (doxes)- glorious, of glory) appearing-ἐπιφάνειαν (epiphaneian)-manifestation, appearance) of the great-μεγάλου (megalou)-i.e: predicated of rank, as belonging to persons, eminent for ability, virtue, authority, power, i.e: mighty) God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ,"
Titus 2:13 (1769)
"Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;"
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598)
προσδεχομενοι (looking for) την (the) μακαριαν (blessed) ελπιδα (hope) και (and) επιφανειαν (appearing) της (of-the) δοξης (glory) του-(of-the) μεγαλου (great) θεου (God) και (and) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ)
Textus Receptus (Stephanus 1550)
προσδεχομενοι (looking for) την (the) μακαριαν (blessed) ελπιδα (hope) και (and) επιφανειαν (appearing) της (of-the) δοξης (glory) του-(of-the) μεγαλου (great) θεου (God) και (and) σωτηρος (Saviour) ημων (our) ιησου (Jesus) χριστου (Christ)
***As you can see, the Greek places the noun σωτηρος (Saviour) before the possessive pronoun ημων (our). And when translated into English the possessive pronoun ημων (our) is then placed before the noun σωτηρος
(Saviour), thus reading like this: "...our Saviour..." Both, the 1611 and the 1769 agree, with the exception of the punctuation.
Below is a list of the old English Bibles for Titus 2:13.
Bishops Bible 1568
"...and appearyng of the glorie of the great God, and our sauiour Iesus Christe,
Geneva Bible 1560
"...and appearing of that glorie of that mightie God, and of our Sauiour Iesus Christ,
The Great Bible 1539
"...& appearinge of the glory of the greate God, & of oure sauioure Iesu Christ,
Matthew's Bible. 1537
"...and gloryous apperyng of the myghtye God, and of oure sauyoure Iesu Christe,
Coverdale Bible 1535
"...and appearynge of the glory of ye greate God and of oure Sauioure Iesu Christ:
Tyndale Bible 1534
"..and glorious apperenge of ye myghty god and of oure savioure Iesu Christ
Wycliffe Bible 1382
"...and the comyng of the glorie of the greet God, and of oure sauyour Jhesu Crist;
Part 4.
"Granville Sharp Rule"
Brothers, the Granville Sharp Rule goes against the King James Bible. On the one hand if you agree with it, then you are forced to acknowledge that 2 Peter 1:1 was incorrectly translated,
here is why: If you acknowledge that Stephanus 1550 Greek text was used for 2 Peter 1:1, then the A.V 1611 should read like this: ("...through the righteousnes of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ). And clearly, that is not how the 1611 or the 1769 read.
2 Peter 1:1 (1611)
"1"Simon Peter, a servant and an Apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious Faith with us, through the righteousnes of God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ.
Textus Receptus (Beza 1598) 2 Peter 1:1
Συμεων